Latest Activity In Study Groups

Join Your Study Groups

VU Past Papers, MCQs and More

We non-commercial site working hard since 2009 to facilitate learning Read More. We can't keep up without your support. Donate.


Economics Solved MCQs - ECO401 Solved MCQs - ECO401 Solved Online Quizzes - ECO401 Solved MCQs Bank - ECO401 MCQs Collection from Online Quizzes – ECO401 Mega Solved MCQs – ECO401 Mid Term Final Term

Economics Solved MCQs - ECO401 Solved MCQs - ECO401 Solved Online Quizzes - ECO401 Solved MCQs Bank - ECO401 MCQs Collection from Online Quizzes – ECO401 Mega Solved MCQs – ECO401 Mid Term Final Term

Views: 1216

Replies to This Discussion

21   The economists who emphasised wage-flexibility as a solution for unemployment were 
A.     Monetarists.
B.     New-Keynesians.
C.     Classical economists.
D.     Keynesians.
 
 22   According to the Classical economists, the economy 
A.     requires fine tuning to reach full employment.
B.     should not be left to market forces.
C.     will never be at full employment.
D.    is self correcting.
 
 23   Monetarism became popular because it was able to, unlike Classical or Keynesian economics, explain 
A.     stagflation in the late 1970s.
B.     demand-pull inflation in the 1960s.
C.     low growth rates in the 1950s.
D.     the prolonged existence of high unemployment during the Great Depression.
 
 

 

 24   Keynes’ explanation for low firm investment during the Great Depression was
A.     low savings, which placed a constraint on investment
B.     high real borrowing rates, which discouraged firm borrowing
C.     high savings, which left consumers with less money to spend on goods and serviced produced by firms
D.     A permanent change in Europe’s corporate ownership structures.
 
 25   Rapid increases in the price level during periods of recession or high unemployment are known as 
A.     slump.
B.     stagnation.
C.     stagflation.
D.     inflation.
 
 26   The hypothesis that people know the 'true model' of the economy and that they use this model and all available information to form their expectations of the future is the 
A.     rational-expectations hypothesis.
B.     active-expectations hypothesis.
C.     static-expectations hypothesis.
D.     adaptive-expectations hypothesis.
 
 27   Neo-Classical theories were an attempt to explain 
A.     how unemployment could have persisted for so long during the Great Depression.
B.     the stagflation of the 1970s.
C.     why policy changes that are perceived as permanent have more of an impact on a person's behaviour than policy changes that are viewed as temporary.
D.     the increase in the growth rate of real output in the 1950s.
 
 28   A group of modern economists who believe that markets clear very rapidly and that expanding the money supply will always increase prices rather than employment are the 
A.     New-Keynesians.
B.     Keynesians.
C.     Monetarists.
D.     The Classical school.
 
 29   Say’s law states that: 
A.     Supply creates its own demand.
B.     Demand creates its own supply.
C.     There is no such things as a free lunch
D.     Macroeconomic policy activism is essential to ensure full-employment.
 
30          The aggregate supply (AS) curve and aggregate demand (AD) curve in a realistic Keynesian world are:
A.     AS: fully horizontal; AD: downward sloping
B.     AS: horizontal only till the full capacity level; AD: downward sloping
C.     AS: vertical; AD: upward sloping
D.     AS: horizontal; AD: vertical
 
MACROECONOMIC DATA AND VARIABLES, NATIONAL INCOME ACCOUNTING AND EQUILIBRIUM IN A KEYNESIAN ECONOMY
 
 
Questions 1-3 are based on the following information about an economy:
 
Consumer price index (2002) = 132
Consumer price index (2001) = 110
Nominal GDP (2002) = $60bn
Nominal GDP (2001) = $50bn
Population (2002) = 7mn
Population (2001) = 6mn
Net factor income from abroad (2002) = +$3bn
Net factor income from abroad (2001) = -$2bn
 
1. By how much has real GDP grown from 2001 to 2002?
A. -10%
B. 12.5%
C. 20%
D. 0%
 
2. By how much has per capita nominal GNP changed from 2001 to 2002?
A. -10%
B. 12.5%
C. 20%
D. 0%
 
3. Based on the above information, we can say that:
A. Poverty has fallen in the country
B. Per capita real GDP is falling
C. Income inequality has worsened
D. Real growth in the informal sector is 0%
 
4. In the circular flow of income, Keynesian equilibrium obtains when
A. All the individual sectors are in equilibrium: S=I, T=G, M=X
B. The aggregate injections equal aggregate withdrawals S+T+M = I+G+X
C. There is no inflation or unemployment
D. The interest rate and exchange rate are at their market clearing levels
 
5.      Under conditions of Keynesian equilibrium:
A.     aggregate demand equals aggregate supply
B.     aggregate demand equals national income
C.     both A and B
D.     none of the above
 
6. Which of the following is a determinant of consumption
            A. expectations about future prices
            B. level of indebtedness of consumers
            C. the price level
            D. all of the above
 
7.      Which is the most volatile component of aggregate demand
A.     Net exports
B.     consumption
C.     investment
D.     government spending
 
8.      Which of the following is not an obvious or direct determinant of a country’s imports
A.     real exchange rate
B.     income
C.     tariff rates
D.    interest rate
 
9. When consumption is 650, income is 750; when consumption is 620, income is 700. Assuming there is no government, I=100, net exports are 10, what is the level of equilibrium income?
A. 500
B. 625
C. 775
D. 850
 
10. Which of the following is not true?
A.     Starting from no growth, a positive output growth rate would be associated with even higher rates of investment (the accelerator effect)
B.     Higher investment causes a multiplied increase in income
C.     Such increases in income would continue to induce higher investment, which in turn would continue to cause multiplied increases in output.
D.    All of the above.
 
11.   In the equation C = a + bY, which describes the aggregate consumption function, 'a' stands for 
A. the amount of consumption when income is zero.
B. the marginal propensity to consume.
C. the amount of consumption when income is Maximum.
D. the average consumption level.
 
12.   Total consumption divided by total income gives us:
A.     the average propensity to consume.
B.     the marginal propensity to save.
C.     the marginal propensity of expenditure.
D.     the marginal propensity to consume.
 
13   Disposable income is the part of households' income left after the deduction of 
 
A.     pension contributions.
B.     income tax and social security payments.
C.     income tax.
D.     savings.
 
14.   As the MPS increases, the multiplier will 
 
A.     increase.
B.     either increase or decrease depending on the size of the change in investment.
C.     remain constant.
D.    decrease.
 
 15.   In macroeconomics, equilibrium is defined as that point at which 
A.     planned aggregate expenditure equals aggregate output.
B.     planned aggregate expenditure equals consumption.
C.     aggregate output equals consumption minus investment.
D.     saving equals consumption.
 
 16.   The ratio of the change in the equilibrium level of output to a change in some autonomous component of aggregate demand is the 
A.     elasticity coefficient.
B.     multiplier.
C.     marginal propensity of the autonomous variable.
D.     automatic stabiliser.
 
 17.   Assuming there are no taxes (and no foreign sector), if the MPC is .8, the multiplier is 
A.     2.5.
B.     8.
C.     5.
D.     2.
 
 18.   Assuming the net income tax rate is 25% (and there is no foreign sector), if the MPC is 0.8, the multiplier is 
A.     2.5.
B.     8.
C.     5.
D.     2.
 
 19.   Assuming there is no foreign sector, if the multiplier is 3, and the net income tax rate is 20%, the MPC is
A.     3/4
B.     4/5
C.     5/6
D.     6/7
 
 20.   Assume there is no government or foreign sector. If the MPC is .75, a Rs.20 billion decrease in planned investment will cause aggregate output to decrease by 
A.     Rs. 80 billion.
B.     Rs. 20 billion.
C.     Rs. 26.67 billion.
D.     Rs. 15 billion.
 
 21.   According to the 'paradox of thrift,' increased efforts to save will cause 
A.     an increase in income and an increase in overall saving.
B.     a decrease in income and an overall decrease in saving.
C.     a decrease in income but an increase in saving.
D.     an increase in income but no overall change in saving.
 
 22.   If injections are less than withdrawals at the full-employment level of national income, there is 
A.     an inflationary gap.
B.     equilibrium.
C.     a deflationary gap.
D.     hyperinflation.
 
 23.   The accelerator theory of investment says that induced investment is determined by 
A.     the rate of change of national income.
B.     expectations.
C.     the level of national income.
D.     the level of aggregate demand.
 
 24.   The diagram that shows the money received and paid out by each sector of the                                                                                           economy is the 
A.     income-price diagram.
B.     income-expenditures diagram.
C.     circular flow diagram.
D.     aggregate demand-aggregate supply diagram.
 
THE BIG FOUR: UNEMPLOYMENT, INFLATION, BALANCE OF PAYMENTS AND GROWTH Related Solved MCQs
 
 
 
UNEMPLOYMENT
 
1.   If both the no. of unemployed people and the size of the labour force increase by 10,000, then
A.     the unemployment rate will remain the same.
B.     the unemployment rate will increase.
C.     the unemployment rate will decrease.
D.     we cannot tell.
 
2. Which of the following could be a reason for the problem of “lack of jobs” being overestimated:
 
A. the existence of disguised unemployment
B. people are underemployment
C. people holding only one job (as opposed to multiple jobs)
D. the existence of child labour
 
3. Which of the following is not a cost of voluntary unemployment?
 
  1. potential output of the economy is greater than actual output
  2. government loses tax revenue
  3. firms lose (potential) revenues due to operating below capacity
  4. mental stress undergone by the unemployed persons
 
4.            “Because higher wages are less likely to induce people who are structurally or physically unable to participate on the labour force. On the other hand people already on the labour force are more likely to respond to higher wages by accepting jobs.”
 
The above statement is an answer to which question?
 
  1. Why is the AJ curve more elastic than the LF curve
  2. Why is the LF curve not totally vertical
  3. Why is the AJ curve not completely vertical
  4. Why is it difficult to completely remove the horizontal distance between the AJ and LF curves
 
5. Which of the following would constitute sound government policy if you subscribed to the Monetarist view on unemployment?
 
  1. increase aggregate demand through monetary or fiscal policy
  2. reduce the obstacles to downward wage rigidity (like unions, unemployment benefits, minimum wage legislations etc.)
  3. Reduce the marginal income tax rate (to increase the incentive to work)
  4. All of the the above
 
6.   The persistence of a phenomenon, such as unemployment, even when its causes have been removed is called 
  1. The paradox of thrift.
  2. hysteresis.
  3. structural unemployment.
  4. ceteris paribus.
 
 7.   Cyclical unemployment is the 
A.     portion of unemployment that is due to changes in the structure of the economy that result in a significant loss of jobs in certain industries.
B.     unemployment that results when people become discouraged about their chances of finding a job so they stop looking for work.
C.     portion of unemployment that is due to seasonal factors.
D.    unemployment that occurs during recessions and depressions.
 
 8.   The natural rate of unemployment is generally thought of as the 
A.     ratio of the frictional unemployment rate to the cyclical unemployment rate.
B.     sum of frictional unemployment and cyclical unemployment.
C.     sum of frictional unemployment and structural unemployment.
D.     sum of structural unemployment and cyclical unemployment.
 
 9.   One of the tenets of the Classical view of the labour market is that the wage adjustments that are necessary to clear the labour market occur 
  1. slowly.
  2. instantly.
  3. very infrequently.
  4. very quickly.
 
10.   According to Keynesian economists, those who are not working 
  1. have given up looking for a job, but would accept a job at the current wage if one were offered to them.
  2. are too productive to be hired at the current wage.
  3. have chosen not to work at the market wage.
  4. are unable to find a job at the current wage rate.
INFLATION Solved MCQs

mcq questions on inflation with answers
mcq on inflation pdf
inflation mcq upsc
inflation questions and answers pdf
monetary policy mcqs pdf
mcq on fiscal policy
monetary policy multiple choice questions and answers
fiscal policy multiple choice questions and answers

 
 11.   The index used most often to measure inflation is the 
  1. consumer price index.
  2. wholesale price index.
  3. student price index.
  4. producer price index.
 
12. If you were the owner of a cycle manufacturing firm, would you be particularly worried if wage inflation were higher than price inflation?
 
  1. No. Because you would still be able to sell your goods at the higher price.
  2. Yes. Because the cost of your input is growing faster than the revenue obtained from your output
  3. Yes. Because both price and wage inflation are bad.
  4. No. Because any loss to the firm will be offset by the gain to the workers.
 
13. Which of the following is not a major cost of inflation:
 
  1. Resource wastage: as people spend time and money to guard against the “purchasing power erosion” effects of inflation, while firms suffer menu costs (i.e. the costs of frequently issuing “revised” price lists).
  2. Uncertainty: firms defer investment when inflation is high and volatile as the latter complicates predicting future cashflows.
  3. Worsened income inequality: inflation is a regressive tax on the people that does not take into account the taxpayers’ “ability to pay”. As such, there is a redistribution of wealth from the poor to the rich.
  4. Money printing costs: inflation requires more currency notes to be printed and this raises the government’s printing costs.
 
 14.   In the long run, the Phillips curve will be vertical at the natural rate of unemployment if 
  1. the long-run supply curve is horizontal at the natural rate of inflation.
  2. the long-run aggregate demand curve is vertical at potential GDP.
  3. the long-run aggregate demand curve is horizontal at the natural rate of inflation.
  4. the long-run aggregate supply curve is vertical at potential GDP.
 
 15.   According to the monetarists, the measured unemployment rate can
  1. be reduced below the natural rate only in the short run, and not without inflation.
  2. be reduced below the natural rate only in the long run, and only if the price level is constant.
  3. be reduced below the natural rate only in the short run, and only if the price level is constant.
  4. be reduced below the natural rate only in the long run, and not without inflation.
 
16.   If the prices of all inputs seem to be rising, can you be absolutely sure that it is cost-push inflation? 
  1. No, because cost-push inflation is caused by an increase in the cost of only one input.
  2. Yes, because that is exactly the definition of cost-push inflation.
  3. No, because such a situation can also be caused by particular demand pressures in the economy.
  4. Yes, because this is exactly what happens in stagflation.
 
 17.   The quantity theory of money implies that, provided velocity of money is constant, a given percentage change in the money supply will cause 
  1. an equal percentage change in nominal GDP.
  2. a larger percentage change in nominal GDP.
  3. an equal percentage change in real GDP.
  4. a smaller percentage change in nominal GDP.
 
 18.   If input prices adjusted very slowly to output prices, the Phillips curve would be 
  1. downward sloping.
  2. vertical or nearly vertical.
  3. upward sloping.
  4. horizontal or nearly horizontal.
 
 19.   If inflationary expectations increase, the short-run Phillips curve will 
  1. become vertical.
  2. become upwarding sloping.
  3. shift to the right.
  4. shift to the left.
BALANCE OF PAYMENTS
 
 20.  The record of a country's transactions in goods, services, and assets with the rest of the world is its _____________; while the difference between a country's merchandise exports and its merchandise imports is the ____________.
  1. current account; trade balance.
  2. capital account; balance of payments.
  3. balance of trade; capital account.
  4. balance of payments; balance of trade.
 
21.   Assuming there is no government intervention in the foreign exchange market, which of the following statements must clearly be FALSE, given that? 
  1. If the capital account is in surplus, then the current account is likely to be in deficit.
  2. If the current account is in deficit, then the capital account is likely to be in surplus.
  3. If the current account is in balance, the capital account is also likely to be in balance.
  4. None of the above.
 
 22. Which of the following statements is necessarily TRUE? 
  1. A country runs a current account deficit if it imports more goods and services than it exports.
  2. The sum of the current and capital accounts must be zero.
  3. If both the current and capital accounts are in surplus, the exchange rate must appreciate.
  4. None of the above.
 
23.   All currencies other than the domestic currency of a given country are referred to as 
A.     reserve currencies.
B.     near monies.
C.     foreign exchange.
D.     hard currency.
 
24.   Exchange rates that are determined by the unregulated forces of supply and demand are 
  1. floating exchange rates.
  2. pegged exchange rates.
  3. fixed exchange rates.
  4. managed exchange rates.
 
25.   If the State Bank of Pakistan reduces the money supply, a floating exchange rate will help in reducing inflation because 
  1. as the money supply is decreased, the interest rate will increase, and the price of both Pakistani exports and Pakistani imports will rise.
  2. as the money supply is decreased, the interest rate will increase, and the price of Pakistani exports will rise and the price of Pakistani imports will fall.
  3. as the money supply is decreased, the interest rate will increase, and the price of Pakistani exports will fall and the price of Pakistani imports will rise.
  4. as the money supply is decreased, the interest rate will increase, and the price of Pakistani exports and Pakistani imports will fall.
 
26. The fall (rise) in value of one currency relative to another is 
  1. a floating (fixing) of the currency.
  2. an appreciation (depreciation) of a currency.
  3. a depreciation (appreciation) of a currency.
  4. a strengthening (weakening) of a currency.
 
27.   If purchasing power parity prevails absolutely in a two country world, the real exchange rate between the two countries should be:
A. 1.
B. constantly changing.
C. relatively stable, but not constant
D. none of the above
 
28.   The interest parity equation implies that there is a general tendency for: 
  1. exchange rates to be insensitive to the differential rates of interest between countries.
  2. the currencies of relatively low-interest countries to appreciate.
  3. the currencies of relatively high-interest countries to appreciate.
  4. the currencies of relatively low-interest countries to depreciate.
 
Note that currencies with low rates of interest also typically have low inflation rates. This follows from the Fischer equation which maintains that the nominal interest rate = real interest rate + expected inflation.
 
29.   Which of the following is (are) correct statement(s) about the current account deficit?
 
A.     A current account deficit is bad, if it is being caused by excessive consumer spending
B.     A current account deficit is bad, if it is fuelled by high fiscal deficits
C.     A current account deficit is good, if it is caused by the excess of productive domestic investment over domestic savings
D.    All of the above
 
 30.   The J-curve effect refers to the observation that 
  1. GDP usually decreases before it increases after a currency depreciation.
  2. GDP usually decreases before it increases after a currency appreciation.
  3. the trade balance usually gets worse before it improves after a currency appreciation.
  4. the trade balance usually gets worse before it improves after a currency depreciation.
 
31.   If Japan exports more direct investment capital abroad than expected, then the yen will tend to 
  1. appreciate.
  2. fluctuate more than if exports were lower.
  3. depreciate.
  4. not be affected.
 
32.   Today is Tuesday morning. If currency dealers expect the value of the dollar to fall by 10% on Wednesday, then, ceteris paribus, what will happen by the end of today to the Rs./dollar exchange rate? It will:
  1. Rise by more than 10%.
  2. Rise by exactly 10%.
  3. Fall by less than 10%.
  4. Remain constant.
 
Hint: Use your common sense. Think of “yourself” as a currency trader and then answer the question, based on your future expectation and the incentive it creates.
GROWTH
 
33. According to traditional thinking on the subject, which of the following would not generate economic growth in an economy?
 
A. an increase in the size of the labour force.
B. an increase in the productivity of capital.
C. a move to more capital intensive production methods
D. discovery of a major mineral resource in the country
 
 34. When referring to economic growth, we normally refer to:
 
A. growth in actual real per capita output
B. growth in potential real per capita output
C. growth in actual nominal per capita output
D. growth in potential real per capita output
 
35. A variable whose value is determined by the model of which it is a part is termed ___________. 
A.      endogenous
B.      exogenous
C.      independent
D.      constant
 
36. An example of capital deepening, given an increasing L, would be:
A.      K increases so as to maintain a constant K/L
B.      K increases so much that K/L increases
C.      K remains constant so that L/K increases
D.      K falls, so as to reduce K/L
 
 37. The neo-classical growth model says that:
 
  1. poor countries should catch-up (or converge to) with richer countries
  2. higher savings (or rates of capital accumulation) cannot raise a country’s steady state growth rate
  3. the steady state growth rate of real output depends on the sum of the (exogenous) growth rates in population and technical progress.
  4. All of the above.
RELATIONSHIPS BETWEEN THE BIG FOUR
 
38.   The length of a business cycle would be measured from 
  1. peak to trough.
  2. trough to peak.
  3. peak to peak.
  4. the slump to the expansion.
 
39.   If the economy is in the expansionary phase of the business cycle, aggregate demand is likely to be ______ , unemployment is likely to be ______ , inflation is likely to be ______ , and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to be moving towards ______. 
  1. rising; falling; rising; deficit
  2. static; low; rising; deficit
  3. falling; falling; falling; surplus
  4. falling; rising; falling; surplus
 
40.   If the economy is at the peak of the business cycle, aggregate demand is likely to be ______ , unemployment is likely to be ______ , inflation is likely to be ______ , and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to be moving towards ______. 
  1. rising; falling; rising; deficit
  2. static; low; rising; deficit
  3. falling; falling; falling; surplus
  4. falling; rising; falling; surplus
 
41.   If the economy is approaching the trough phase of the business cycle, aggregate demand is likely to be ______ , unemployment is likely to be ______ , inflation is likely to be ______, and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to be moving towards ______. 
  1. rising; falling; rising; deficit
  2. static; low; rising; deficit
  3. falling; falling; falling; surplus
  4. falling; rising; falling; surplus
 
42. Which of the following is not true regarding the effects of growth on the balance of payments and vice versa?
A.           Generally, growth raises incomes which will translate into higher consumption and higher imports, causing the current account of the BOPs to deteriorate.
B.           If growth is “export-led”, it will boost the current account surplus of the BOPs.
C.           If the current account deficit reflects an underlying private sector resource deficit, it is likely to be bad for future growth.
D.           If the current account reflects rising imports of military equipment by the government, it might not be beneficial for economic growth.
 
43. A country has high inflation and is running a current account deficit. What should it do in the context of the Salter-Swan diagram?
 
A.     Reduce government spending and revalue the exchange rate
B.     Increase government spending and devalue the exchange rate
C.     Reduce the money supply and devalue the exchange rate
D.     Increase government spending and revalue the exchange rate
FISCAL POLICY AND TAXATION, MONEY AND MONETARY POLICY, IS-LM APPROACH Solved MCQs
 
 
 1.   A government’s attempt to reduce its defence expenditure is an example of ­­    (i)    , while a government effort to raise interest rates is an example of       (ii)     .                
 
                                  (i)                                       (ii)

A.
B.
C.
D.
 monetary policy.
 fiscal policy.
 incomes policy.
 supply-side policy.
 
 fiscal policy.
 monetary policy.
 incomes policy.
 supply-side policy.
 

2. According to the Laffer curve, as tax rates increase, tax revenues 
  1. decrease continuously.
  2. initially decrease and then increase.
  3. rise continuously.
  4. initially increase and then decrease.
 
3. The government imposes a new income tax legislation under which every male taxpayer must pay 15% of his income as taxes, while every female taxpayer must pay 20% of her income as taxes. Such tax legislation violates which equity principle?
 
  1. Both horizontal equity and vertical equity
  2. Vertical equity only
  3. Horizontal equity only
  4. Neither
 
4. A 15% VAT is a(n):
  1. Proportional income tax.
  2. Fixed excise duty.
  3. Ad valorem indirect tax.
  4. None of the above.
 
5.   Tax incidence is the 
  1. ultimate distribution of a tax's burden.
  2. measure of the impact the tax has on employment and output.
  3. behaviour of shifting the tax to another party.
  4. structure of the tax.
 
6.    You know that all taxes are distortionary. Under what conditions will this knowledge lead you to oppose the imposition of every single tax in the economy?
 
  1. If you live in a 1st best world
  2. If you live in a 2nd best world
  3. If the tax rates on some of the items are prohibitively high
  4. Either of the above
 
7.            The automatic stabilisation function of fiscal policy ensures that government expenditures ______(i)______ and government revenues _____(ii)_____ during recessions. 
 
(i)                   (ii)
A.     decrease         decrease
B.     decrease           increase
C.     increase           decrease
D.     increase            increase
 
8.      Let us say assume the Pakistani government is facing a fiscal deficit. Which of the following would not constitute a possible method of financing this deficit?
 
    1. printing rupees (borrowing from the central bank)
    2. selling dollars in the foreign exchange market
    3. imposing new taxes or raising existing tax rates
    4. borrowing from an international financial institution
 
9.      Which of the following is not a correct argument against a fiscal policy expansion – say a tax cut – aimed at lifting aggregate demand?
 
A.     The expansion might become pro-cyclical ex-post, given the lag time required to change fiscal policy.
B.     Fiscal policy works with a lag, thus a tax cut introduced today would not have an expansionary effect on aggregate demand till many months later.
C.     The fiscal expansion would increase distortion in the economy.
D.     Lower taxes would increase the government’s borrowing requirement, which in turn would cause interest rates to rise, which in turn would i) cause the exchange rate to appreciate, which in turn would cause the current account to move into deficit, and ii) crowd out private investment.
 
10. The increase in base money divided by the corresponding induced increase in commercial bank deposits is the 
A.     bank's line of credit.
B.     reserve ratio.
C.     current ratio.
D.     money multiplier.
 
 
 11. If the State Bank of Pakistan wished to pursue a 'tight' monetary policy, it would 
A.     lower the required reserve ratio and the statutory liquidity ratio.
B.     lower interest rates.
C.     buy government securities on the open market.
D.    sell government securities on the open market.
 
12.   An item designated as money that is intrinsically worthless could be 
A.     a currency note.
B.     a silver coin.
C.     a barter item.
D.     any tradeable commodity.
 
13.   A checking deposit (or current account) held at a commercial bank is considered __________ of that bank. 
A.     an asset.
B.     net worth.
C.     a liability.
D.     capital.
 
 
14.   Which of the following activities is one of the responsibilities of the State Bank of Pakistan? 
A.     Monitoring the financial health of banks and non-bank financial insitutions.
B.     Auditing the various agencies and departments of the government.
C.     Issuing bonds on international capital markets to finance the fiscal deficit.
D.     Loaning money to other countries that are friendly to Pakistan.
 
 15.   A bank has excess liquidity reserves to lend but is unable to find a willing borrower. This will __________ the size of the money multiplier. 
A.     reduce
B.     increase
C.     have no effect on
D.     double
 
16.   The quantity of money demanded increases with income. Thus if income increases, the opportunity cost of holding money must go up in order to reduce money demand and re-establish equilibrium in the money market. This relation is captured by:
A.     an upward sloping LM curve.
B.     a downward sloping L curve.
C.     a downward sloping IS curve.
D.     the circular flow of money in the economy.
 
 17.   When economists speak of the 'demand for money,' which of the following questions are they asking? 
A.     How much cash do you wish you could have?
B.     How much wealth would you like?
C.     How much income would you like to earn?
D.     What proportion of your financial assets do you want to hold in non-interest bearing forms?
 
18.   Which of the following will not cause money supply to expand, given a fully floating exchange rate regime and a fixed supply of dollars in the market
 
  1. The central bank buying foreign currency in the foreign exchange market
  2. redemption of central bank liquidity paper
  3. build-up of commercial banks’ deposits held with the central bank
  4. decrease in the central bank discount rate
 
 19.   Which of the following events will lead to a decrease in the demand for money? 
  1. An increase in the level of aggregate output.
  2. A decrease in the supply of money.
  3. A decrease in the interest rate.
  4. A decrease in the price level.
20.        Which of the following is neither a determinant of the slope of the IS curve nor a determinant of the slope of the LM curve?
  1. the sensitivity of interest rates to investment
  2. the sensitivity of money demand to income
  3. the sensitivity of money demand to interest rates
  4. the sensitivity of income to investment
 
21.        Given a Keynesian world, a cut in taxes coupled with a lower reserve ratio for banks would have what effect on equilibrium income and interest rate?
    1. Both income and the interest rate will remain unchanged
    2. income will come down, but the interest rate will go up
    3. income will go up, but the effect on the interest rate cannot be predicted
    4. interest rates will go down, but the effect on income cannot be predicted
 
22.        If the government increases its spending, but this causes prices to rise, what will “eventually” happen to the equilibrium income and interest rate?
 
A.     Both income and the interest rate will remain unchanged
B.     income will come down, but the interest rate will go up
C.     income will go up, but the effect on the interest rate cannot be predicted
D.     interest rates will go down, but the effect on income cannot be predicted
 
23.              If the income elasticity of money demand and the Keynesian multiplier, both increase in an economy (ceteris paribus), how will the relative effectiveness of monetary and fiscal policy change?
 
    1. Fiscal policy will become relatively more effective than monetary policy
    2. Fiscal policy will become relatively less effective than monetary policy
    3. The relative effectiveness of fiscal and monetary policy will remain unchanged
    4. Both fiscal and monetary policy will become more effective.
 
24.        The intersection of the IS and LM curves captures:
A.     the equilibrium of the demand and supply sides of the economy
B.     the equivalence of monetary and fiscal policy
C.     joint equilibrium in the goods and money markets
D.     all of the above
 
1. Disposable Income is obtained by subtracting _____________taxes from personal income:
 
  1. Indirect Taxes
  2. Direct Taxes
  3. Subsidies
  4. None
 
 
2. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by:
 
  1. Total labor Force in the Country
  2. Unemployed Youth in the Country
  3. Total population of that country.
  4. None
 
 
3. The investment demand curve shows the relationship between the levels of:
 
A.     Investment and Consumption
B.     Consumption and Interest Rate
C.    Investment and Interest Rate
D.    None
 
 
4. The situation in which the imports are greater than exports is termed as:
 
  1. Trade Surplus
  2. Trade Deficit
  3. Budget Surplus
  4. None
 
 
5. Fiscal policy is the government programme with respect to it’s:
 
  1. Steel Mill Privatization
  2. Unemployment Reduction
  3. Expenditure and Tax revenue
  4. None
 
6. Imports for any economy are considered as:
 
A.     Injections
B.    Leakages
C.    Brain Drain
D.    None
 
 
7. The accelerator is a related concept which formalizes the investment response to:
 
  1. Consumption
  2. Interest rate
  3. Output
  4. None
 
 
8. According to Keynes macroeconomic equilibrium is attained when:
 
A.     Prime Minister is PhD in Macroeconomics
B.    Aggregate Demand Equals Aggregate Supply
C.    Inflation Exists in Economy.
D.    None
 
 
9. There are __________________methods of measuring GDP:
 
  1. Four
  2. Three
  3. Five
  4. None
 
 
10. Intermediate goods are meant for:
 
  1. Direct use by the consumers
  2. further processing
  3. The term do not exist
  4. None
 
1. Fiscal policy refers to:
 
  1. The actions of the central bank in controlling the money supply.
  2. The spending and taxing policies used by the government to influence the economy.
  3. The government's regulation of financial intermediaries.
  4. None of the given options.
 
 
2. Disposable income is:
 
  1. Total income plus transfer payments
  2. Total income minus saving.
  3. Total income plus net taxes.
  4. Total income minus net taxes.
 
 
3. The deficit tends to decrease when:
 
  1. GDP decreases slightly.
  2. GDP decreases rapidly.
  3. GDP increases.
  4. GDP remains unchanged.
 
 
4. Money or paper currency serves at least ______________ functions:
 
  1. Four
  2. Three
  3. Five
  4. Seven
 
5. The economic logic behind granting central banks independence from government in the conduct of monetary policy is:
 
  1. To eliminate seignior age.
  2. To allow open market operations.
  3. To enhance the credibility of monetary policy.
  4. None of the above.
 
 
 
6. An expansionary fiscal policy can:
 
  1. Raise the national debt.
  2. Decrease the national debt.
  3. Have no effect on national debt.
  4. None of above.
 
7. Which is high powered money?
 
  1. M1
  2. M2
  3. Mo
  4. None
 
8. There are _________major instruments of monetary policy:
 
  1. Three
  2. Four
  3. Five
  4. None
 
9. The rate at which central bank lends to commercial banks is known as:
 
  1. Reserve rate.
  2. Discount rate.
  3. Open market operation.
  4. None.
 
10. Identify the three motives of money demand:
 
  1. Accumulative, speculative, precautionary
  2. Speculative, transaction, precautionary
  3. Precautionary special, transaction
  4. None
 
1.      If, in a fully employed, closed economy, the supply of money and the velocity of circulation of money both increase, then in the short-run.
 
  1. Unemployment of factors will result
  2. Real national output will expand
  3. The volume of transactions will increase
  4. The average level of prices will rise
 
2.      An increase in the rate of inflation which is not accompanied by any change in the volume of consumer goods sold will automatically increase the:
 
  1. Revenue from Value Added Tax
  2. Level of company profits
  3. Level of unemployment
  4. Average level of wages
 
3.      The increase in the Public Sector Borrowing Requirement (PSBR) to almost £50 billion this year will automatically lead to:
 
  1. A higher rate of inflation
  2. A fall in the rate of unemployment
  3. An increase in the National Debt
  4. A deterioration in the Balance of Payments
 
4.      The investment demand curve shows the relationship between the levels of:
 
  1. Investment and Consumption
  2. Consumption and Interest Rate
  3. Investment and Interest Rate
  4. None
 
5.      According to Classical models, the level of employment is determined primarily by:
 
a.      The level of aggregate demand for goods and services.
b.      Prices and wages.
c.      Government taxation.
d.      Government spending.
 
6.      Which of the following is not an important variable in growth accounting calculations?
 
  1. Productivity growth
  2. Money supply growth
  3. Labor growth
  4. Capital growth
 
7.      The per-worker production function relates:
 
  1. Output per worker to capital per worker.
  2. Output per worker to production per worker.
  3. Output per worker to factors of production per worker.
  4. Production per worker to the size of the work force.
 
8.       In a steady-state economy:
 
  1. Net investment equals depreciation rate.
  2. Per capita capital stock grows at the rate of labour growth.
  3. Per capita capital stock remains constant.
  4. Net investment equals the consumption.
 
9.      The war in Iraq sent oil prices spiraling upwards, resulting in an increase in the overall price level. This is an example of which type of inflation?
 
  1. Cost-pull
  2. Cost-push
  3. Demand-pull
  4. Demand-push
 
10. The IMF is an agency charged with providing:
 
a.      Technical assistance to stock market and financial market problems.
b.      Loans for post-World War II reconstruction.
c.      Short‑term credit for international balance of payments deficits.
d.      Bonds denominated in U.S. dollars as a loan to LDCs.
 
11. In a portfolio investment:
 
a.      Investors are directly involved in managing the operations.
b.      As in direct investment, investors export goods and services abroad.
c.      Investors transfer the technology to local investors.
d.     Investors have no control over operations.
 
12.Inflation:
 
  1. Reduces both the purchasing power of the dollar and one's real income
  2. reduces the purchasing power of the dollar and increases one's real income
  3. Reduces the purchasing power of the dollar but may have no impact on one's real income
  4. Increases the purchasing power of the dollar and reduces one's real income
 
13.One of the tenets of the classical view of the labour market is that the wage adjustments that are necessary to clear the labour market occur:
 
  1. Slowly.
  2. Quickly.
  3. Very infrequently.
  4. Instantly.
 
14.Those that hold the classical view of the labour market are likely to believe that:
  1. Monetary, but not fiscal policy will have an effect on output and employment.
  2. Both monetary and fiscal policy will have an effect on output and employment.
  3. Fiscal, but not monetary policy will have an effect on output and employment.
  4. Neither monetary nor fiscal policy will have an effect on output and employment.
 
15.Potential GDP is the level of aggregate output:
 
  1. That can be produced if structural unemployment is zero.
  2. That can be produced at a zero unemployment rate.
  3. That can be sustained in the long run, if the inflation rate is zero.
  4. That can be sustained in the long run without inflation.
 
16.Which school of economic thought suggested that one possible cause of inflation was a 'push' from the cost side?
 
  1. New classical economists.
  2. Monetarists.
  3. Marxists.
  4. Keynesians.
 
17.An unspoken agreement between workers and firms that the firm will not cut wages is known as:
 
  1. An explicit contract.
  2. An implicit or social contract.
  3. Employment-at-will.
  4. A relative-wage contract.
 
18.To offset the downswing in the business cycle, the government announces a major increase in public expenditure.
 
  1. Technological Unemployment
  2. Demand Deficient Unemployment
  3. Real Wage Unemployment
  4. Regional Unemployment
 
19.The government puts pressure on trade unions to make pay claims which are below the increase in productivity over the past year.
 
  1. Frictional Unemployment
  2. Technological Unemployment
  3. Structural Unemployment
  4. Real Wage Unemployment
 
20. In which case is total expenditure in an economy not equal to total income?
 
a.      If total saving is larger than total investment
b.      If net exports are not zero
c.      If inventory investment is negative
d.     None of the above--they are always equal

Economics ECO401 Solved MCQs 200+ Solved MCQs

economics solved mcqs pdf
mcqs of economics of pakistan with answers
economics mcqs with answers for ppsc pdf
css economics solved mcqs pdf
economics mcqs with answers pdf free download
economics mcqs for public service commission
solved mcqs of microeconomics
economics mcqs book

Economics (ECO-401
FOR MID TERM
1. Marginal utility measures:
A.    The slope of the indifference curve.
B.    The additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good.
C.    The slope of the budget line.
D.   The marginal rate of substitution.
2. Which of the following best expresses the law of diminishing marginal utility?
A.     The more a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the utility which he receives from its consumption.
B.     The more a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the additional utility which she receives as a result of consuming an additional unit of the product.
C.    The less a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the utility which she receives from its consumption.
D.    The less a person consumes of a product, the smaller becomes the additional utility which he receives as a result of consuming an additional unit of the product.
3. A curve that represents all combinations of market baskets that provide the same level of utility to a consumer is called:
A.    A budget line.
B.    An isoquant.
C.    An indifference curve.
D.   A demand curve.
4. The marginal rate of substitution:
A.     May rise or fall, depending on the slope of the budget line.
B.     Rises as you move downward along an indifference curve.
C.    Falls as you move downward along an indifference curve.
D.    Remains the same along a budget line.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the indifference curves?
A.     They are concave to the origin.
B.     They are convex to the origin.
C.    Curves closer to the origin have the highest level of total utility.
D.    Curves closer to the origin have the highest level of marginal utility.
6. In the diagram given below, the budget line is best represented by the line:

 
A.     AB
B.     AD
C.    FG
D.    DG
7. The endpoints (horizontal and vertical intercepts) of the budget line:
A.    Measure its slope.
B.    Measure the rate at which one good can be substituted for another.
C.    Measure the rate at which a consumer is willing to trade one good for another.
D.   Represent the quantity of each good that could be purchased if all of the budget were allocated to that good.
 
8. If prices and income in a two-good society double, what will happen to the budget line?
A.    The intercepts of the budget line will increase.
B.    The intercepts of the budget line will decrease.
C.    The slope of the budget line may either increase or decrease.
D.   There will be no effect on the budget line.
 
9. If Px = Py, then when the consumer maximizes utility,
A.    X must equal Y.
B.    MU(X) must equal MU(Y).
C.    MU(X) may equal MU(Y), but it is not necessarily so.
D.   X and Y must be substitutes.
10. The difference between what a consumer is willing to pay for a unit of a good and what must be paid when actually buying it is called:
A.    Producer surplus.
B.    Consumer surplus.
C.    Cost-benefit analysis.
D.   Net utility.
11. Which of following is a key assumption of a perfectly competitive market?
A.    Firms can influence market price.
B.    Commodities have few sellers.
C.    It is difficult for new sellers to enter the market.
D.   Each seller has a very small share of the market.
12. A firm maximizes profit by operating at the level of output where:
A.    Average revenue equals average cost.
B.    Average revenue equals average variable cost.
C.    Total costs are minimized.
D.   Marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
13. The demand curve facing a perfectly competitive firm is:
A.    Downward-sloping and less flat than the market demand curve.
B.    Downward-sloping and more flat than the market demand curve.
C.    Perfectly horizontal.
D.   Perfectly vertical.
14. The monopolist has no supply curve because:
A.    The quantity supplied at any particular price depends on the monopolist's demand curve.
B.    The monopolist's marginal cost curve changes considerably over time.
C.    The relationship between price and quantity depends on both marginal cost and average cost.
D.   There is a single seller in the market.

15. A doctor sizes up patients' income and charges wealthy patients more than poorer ones. This pricing scheme represents a form of:
A.    First-degree price discrimination.
B.    Second-degree price discrimination.
C.    Third-degree price discrimination.
D.   Pricing at each consumer’s reservation price.
16. For which of the following market structures is it assumed that there are barriers to entry?
A.    Perfect competition
B.    Monopolistic competition
C.    Monopoly
D.   All of the above
17. A market with few entry barriers and with many firms that sell differentiated products is:
A.    Purely competitive.  
B.    A monopoly.
C.    Monopolistically competitive.
D.   Oligopolistic.
 
18. Welfare economics is a branch of economics dealing with:
A.    Social issues.
B.    Normative issues.
C.    Political issues.
D.   None of the given options.
19. ___________________ are goods that people must get a flavor of before they can consider buying them.
A.    Experience goods.
B.    Giffen goods.
C.    Normal goods.
D.   None of the given options.
20. Which of the following does not refer to macroeconomics?
A.    The study of aggregate level of economic activity.
B.    The study of causes of unemployment.
C.    The study of causes of inflation.
D.   The study of the economic behavior of individual decision-making units such as consumers, resource owners and business firms.
21) ----------------- is the entire satisfaction one derives from consuming goods or services:
A.     Total utility
B.     Scarcity
C.    Marginal utility
D.    Rationing
22) The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A.     As consumer consumes more and more units of any commodity, the utility that consumer derives from each additional unit falls
B.     As consumer consumes more and more units of any commodity, the utility that consumer derives from each additional unit rises
C.    As consumer consumes more and more units of any commodity, the utility that consumer derives from each additional unit remains the same
D.    As consumer consumes less and less units of any commodity, the utility that consumer derives from each additional unit falls
23) The equi marginal principle states that:
A.     MUa = MUb = MUc = ---------------------------=MUn
                      Pa       Pb       Pc                                          Pn
B.     MUa > MUb > MUc > --------------------------->MUn
                       Pa       Pb       Pc                                          Pn
C.    MUa < MUb < MUc < ---------------------------u>MUn
                      Pa       Pb       Pc                                          Pn
D.    None of the given options
24) Marginal utility measures:
A.     The slope of the indifference curve
B.    The additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good
C.    The slope of the budget line
D.    The marginal rate of substitution
25) ----------------- is the difference between willingness to pay and what the consumer actually has to pay:
A.     Total Utility
B.    Consumer surplus
C.    Producer surplus
D.    Total product
26) -------------- is the ratio of the probability of success to the probability of failure:
A.     Input output ratio
B.    Odds ratio
C.    Price earning ratio
D.    Price sales ratio
27) ------------------- operate under the principle of law of large numbers:
A.     Banks
B.    Insurance companies
C.    Government sponsored enterprises
D.    None of the given options
28) The optimum consumption point for the consumer is a point where:
A.     The slopes of the indifference curve and budget line are equal
B.     The slopes of the indifference curve and total product are equal
C.    The slopes of the total utility curve and budget line are equal
D.    The slopes of the total product curve and total utility curve are equal
29) A curve that represents all combinations of market baskets that provide the same level of utility to a consumer is called:
A.     A budget line
B.     An isoquant
C.    An indifference curve
D.    A demand curve
30) The slope of an indifference curve reveals that:
A.     The preferences are complete
B.    The marginal rate of substitution of one good for another good
C.    The ratio of market prices
D.    That preferences are transitive
31) The law of diminishing returns applies to
A.     The short run only
B.     The long run only
C.    Both the short and the long run
D.    Neither the short nor the long run
32) In the long run:
A.     All inputs are fixed
B.    All inputs are variable
C.    At least one input is variable and one input is fixed
D.    At most one input is variable and one input is fixed
33) According to the law of diminishing returns
A.     The total product of an input will eventually be negative
B.     The total product of an input will eventually decline
C.    The marginal product of an input will eventually be negative
D.    The marginal product of an input will eventually decline
34) The slope of the total product curve is the
A.     Average product
B.     Slope of a line from the origin to the point
C.    Marginal product
D.    Marginal rate of technical substitution

35) The short run is
A.     Less than a year
B.     Three years
C.    However long it takes to produce the planned output
D.    A time period in which at least one input is fixed
36) The marginal product of an input is
A.     Total product divided by the amount of the input used to produce this amount of output
B.     The addition to total output that adds nothing to profit
C.    The addition to total output due to the addition of one unit of all other inputs
D.    The addition to total output due to the addition of the last unit of an input, holding all other inputs constant
37) Average product is defined as:
A.     Total product divided by the total cost
B.     Total product divided by marginal product
C.    Total product divided by the variable input
D.    Marginal product divided by the variable input
38) Marginal product crosses the horizontal axis (is equal to zero) at the point where:
A.     Average product is maximized
B.    Total product is maximized
C.    Diminishing returns set in
D.    Output per worker reaches a maximum
39) The law of diminishing returns refers to diminishing
A.     Total returns               
B.    Marginal returns          
C.    Average returns
D.    All of the given options
40) The law of diminishing returns assumes that
A.     There is at least one fixed input
B.     All inputs are changed by the same percentage
C.    Additional inputs are added in smaller and smaller increments
D.    All inputs are held constant
41. The study of economics is primarily concerned with:
A.    Demonstrating that capitalistic economies are superior to socialistic economies.
B.    Determining the most equitable distribution of society's output.
C.    Keeping private businesses from losing money.
D.   Choices which are made in seeking to use scarce resources efficiently.
42. Opportunity cost is:
A.    That which we forego, or give up, when we make a choice or a decision.
B.    A cost that cannot be avoided, regardless of what is done in the future.
C.    The additional cost of producing an additional unit of output.
D.   The additional cost of buying an additional unit of a product.
43. Periods of less than full employment correspond to:
A.     Points outside the ppf.(production possibility frontier).
B.     Points inside the ppf.
C.    Points on the ppf.
D.    Either points inside or outside the ppf.
 
44. In a free-market economy the allocation of resources is determined by:
A.    votes taken by consumers
B.    a central planning authority
C.    Consumer preferences
D.   the level of profits of firms
45. A firm produces chairs. An economist working for the firm predicts that 'if people's incomes rise next year, then the demand for our chairs will increase, ceteris paribus.' The accuracy of the economist's prediction depends on whether the chairs that firm produces:
A.    Have many complementary goods.
B.    Have few substitutes.
C.    Have few complementary goods.
D.   Are normal goods.
46. According to law of demand, a demand curve is:
A.    Horizontal
B.    Vertical
C.    Downward sloping
D.   Directly related to law of supply
47. A rational decision maker will take only those actions for which the marginal benefit:
A.    Is positive.
B.    Is at its maximum level.
C.    Is less than marginal cost.
D.   Is greater than or equal to the expected marginal cost.
48. All of the following are determinants of supply except:   
A.    Price
B.    Income levels
C.    Objectives of the firm
D.   Level of technology
49. Normative economics:
A.    Deals solely with the facts
B.    Is never studied in the colleges
C.    Involves opinions and interpretations
D.   Is clearly preferable to positive economics

50. The transformation of resources into economic goods and services is:
A.    Technical efficiency
B.    Input
C.    Production
D.   Increasing returns
  1. The price elasticity of demand is defined as the absolute value of the ratio of:
  2. Price over quantity demanded.
  3. Change in price over change in quantity demanded.
  4. Percentage change in price over the percentage change in quantity demanded.
  5. Percentage change in quantity demanded over the percentage change in price.
  6. If a good is a luxury, its income elasticity of demand is:
  7. positive and less than 1
  8. negative but greater than -1
  9. positive and greater than 1
  10. zero
  11. A resource is something that:
  12. Is used to produce goods and services.
  13. Is provided by nature, not made by society.
  14. Exists in unlimited quantities.
  15. Must be produced by a firm.
  16. If the cross-price elasticity between home personal computers and video game units for TV is positive, one can conclude that
  17. These products are substitutes for one another.
  18. These products complement one another.
  19. These products are over-priced.
  20. Consumers are irrational.
  21. As one moves along a convex isoquant, which of the following does not change?
  22. The marginal rate of technical substitution.
  23. The capital-labor ratio.
  24. The marginal product of labor relative to the marginal product of capital.
  25. The level output produced.
  26. Of the following goods, the one where the law of diminishing marginal utility is least likely to apply is:
  27. Water.
  28. Cigarettes.
  29. Toothpaste.
  30. Rap music.
  31. The optimal purchasing rule states that total utility is maximized when a consumer:
  32. Consumes as much as possible of all good.
  33. Consumes the same quantities of all goods.
  34. Completely uses up their income.
  35. Consumes to the point where the marginal utility per dollar spent on all goods is the same.
  36. Which of the following pairs come closest to being complementary goods?
  37. Apples and oranges.
  38. Cameras and films.
  39. A free hotel room and a free meal.
  40. Cream and milk.
  41. A Giffen good:
  42. Is a good that people buy more of as their incomes fall.
  43. Is a good which people buy more of as its price increases.
  44. Is a good on which people spend a small portion of their income.
  45. Has a vertical demand curve.
  46. When an industry expands its costs of production will:
  47. Increase.
  48. Decrease.
  49. stay the same.
  50. none of the above.

61.Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbooks to the    right?

  1. A fall in the price of paper used in publishing texts.
  2. A fall in the price of equivalent used text books.
  3. An increase in the number of students attending college.
  4. A fall in the price of new text books.
  5. Which of these measures the responsiveness of the quantity of one good demanded to an increase in the price of another good?
  6. Price elasticity.
  7. Income elasticity.
  8. Cross?price elasticity.
  9. Cross?substitution elasticity.

63.Assume that the current market price is below the market clearing level. We would expect:

  1. A surplus to accumulate.
  2. Downward pressure on the current market price.
  3. Upward pressure on the current market price.
  4. Lower production during the next time period.

64.The income elasticity of demand is the:

  1. Absolute change in quantity demanded resulting from a one?unit increase in income.
  2.  Percent change in quantity demanded resulting from the absolute increase in income.
  3.  Percent change in quantity demanded resulting from a one percent increase in income.
  4.  Percent change in income resulting from a one percent increase in quantity demanded.
  5. Which of the following statements about the diagram below is true?
  6. Demand is infinitely elastic.
  7. Demand is completely inelastic.
  8. Demand becomes more inelastic the lower the price.
  9. Demand becomes more elastic the lower the price.
  10. In the long run, new firms can enter an industry and so the supply elasticity tends to be:
  11. More elastic than in the short?run.
  12. Less elastic than in the short?run.
  13. Perfectly elastic.
  14. Perfectly inelastic.
  15. A curve that represents all combinations of market baskets that provide the same level of utility to a consumer is called:
  16. A budget line.
  17. An isoquant.
  18. An indifference curve.
  19. A demand curve.
  20. The magnitude of the slope of an indifference curve is:
  21. Called the marginal rate of substitution.
  22. Equal to the ratio of the total utility of the goods.
  23. Always equal to the ratio of the prices of the goods.
  24. All of the above.
  25. Which of the following is a positive statement?
  26. Intermediate microeconomics should be required of all economics majors in order to build a solid foundation in economic theory.
  27. The minimum wage should not be increased, because to do so would increase unemployment.
  28. Smoking should be restricted on all airline flights.
  29. None of the above.
  30. A supply curve reveals:
  31. The quantity of output consumers are willing to purchase at each possible market price.
  32. The difference between quantity demanded and quantity supplied at each price.
  33. The maximum level of output an industry can produce, regardless of price.
  34. The quantity of output that producers are willing to produce and sell at each possible market price.
  35. The slope of an indifference curve reveals:
  36. That preferences are complete.
  37. The marginal rate of substitution of one good for another good.
  38. The ratio of market prices.
  39. That preferences are transitive.

 

 

Good Y

 

 

         45°

 

Good X

 

     A

  1. Alvin's preferences for good X and good Y are shown in the diagram below.

           

 

 

 

Based on Figure it can be inferred that:

  1. Alvin does not consider good X as "good."
  2. Alvin will never purchase any of good Y.
  3. Alvin regards good X and good Y as perfect substitutes.
  4. Alvin regards good X and good Y as perfect complements.
  5. An increase in income, holding prices constant, can be represented as:
  6. A change in the slope of the budget line.
  7. A parallel outward shift in the budget line.
  8. An outward shift in the budget line with its slope becoming flatter.
  9. A parallel inward shift in the budget line.
  10. If prices and income in a two-good society double, what will happen to the budget line?
  11. The intercepts of the budget line will increase.
  12. The intercepts of the budget line will decrease.
  13. The slope of the budget line may either increase or decrease.
  14. There will be no effect on the budget line.

 

  1. An individual consumes only two goods, X and Y. Which of the following expressions represents the utility maximizing market basket?
  2. MRSxy is at a maximum.
  3. Px/Py = money income.
  4. MRSxy = money income.
  5. MRSxy = Px/Py.
  6. Which of the following is true regarding income along a price consumption curve?   
  7. Income is increasing.
  8. Income is decreasing. 
  9. Income is constant.
  10. The level of income depends on the level of utility.
  11. An individual with a constant marginal utility of income will be
  12. Risk averse.
  13. Risk neutral.
  14. Risk loving.
  15. Insufficient information for a decision.
  16. A function that indicates the maximum output per unit of time that a firm can produce, for every combination of inputs with a given technology, is called:
  17. An isoquant.                 
  18. A production possibility curve.        
  19. A production function.
  20. An isocost function.
  21. The short run is:
  22. Less than a year.
  23. Three years.
  24. However long it takes to produce the planned output.
  25. A time period in which at least one input is fixed.
  26. The rate at which one input can be reduced per additional unit of the other input, while holding output constant, is measured by the:
  27. Marginal rate of substitution.
  28. Marginal rate of technical substitution.
  29. Slope of the isocost curve.
  30. Average product of the input.

ELASTICITIES

RSS

Looking For Something? Search Below

VIP Member Badge & Others

How to Get This Badge at Your Profile DP

------------------------------------

Management: Admins ::: Moderators

Other Awards Badges List Moderators Group

Latest Activity

© 2021   Created by + M.Tariq Malik.   Powered by

Promote Us  |  Report an Issue  |  Privacy Policy  |  Terms of Service